I figured that's what someone would say. The whole point is that science is, presumably (and I believe to be so), based on demonstrable, material evidence, whereas Scripture is Scripture. I have asked previous for material proof of God and was rebuffed (by you, and politely).

So we return to the same question, and I receive the expected answer--which I believe leaves the notion of exclusivity a viable one.

Regarding the vase analogy, why would someone have cause to assume otherwise?